In my lit class this semester, entitled "Classical Ideals of Character", we are examining the concepts of virtue and honor, and the definition of happiness, through the lens of Homer and Aristotle. In Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics, he posits that man's purpose is to reason. A man's ability to reason well enables him to enjoy a happy life, because by reasoning well, a man will act well. Virtue is demonstrated by action, not merely intention, so a reasoning man will be a man of good and virtuous action, and thus a happy man.
But here is a dilemma I brought up with the professor:
How do we as Christians perceive the relationship between reason and revelation?
Aristotle's belief is, if I understand correctly, that man's function is to reason, and to reason well. His ability to reason well will enable him to live a happy life. But to be happy and fulfilled in life, a man must do more than reason well; he must know God. Reason plays a part in understanding God and His ways, because God Himself is reasonable.
The Apostle Paul, however, seems to challenge this idea when he asks the Corinthians, "Where is the wise? Where is the scribe? Where is the disputer of the world? Hath not God made foolish the wisdom [knowledge?] of this world? For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe" (I Cor. 1:20-21).
How does our ability to reason serve us in our pursuit of happiness when our happiness includes knowing God, and our wisdom is mere foolishness to God? Must we lay aside reason to grasp by spiritual revelation the truth of salvation in Christ?
In the verses surrounding the ones quoted above, Paul makes it sound like human reasoning is futile in perceiving spiritual truth. Yet, Paul's own ability to reason was masterful! He says in verses 22 and 23, "For the Jews require a sign [revelation?], and the Greeks seek after wisdom: but we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness."
The Greeks didn't arrive at a knowledge of the monotheistic God by reason. God revealed himself to the Jews, yet even they couldn't understand how Jesus fit into the picture. Christianity appears to be a merging of two dichotomic paradigms, reason and revelation. Could Paul be saying that neither those operating by reason (Greeks), nor those operating by revelation (Jews) are able to comprehend the mystery of godliness because it takes both reason and revelation to know truth?